Discussion of diabetes management in day to day life





Glucose Intolerant vs. Diabetic

I have received a lot of e-mail from folks telling me that there’s no such
thing as being a "borderline diabetic," or having "diabetic
tendencies," that, in the words of one of my correspondents, it’s like
being "a little pregnant."  The reasons given for this make sense to me,
but I have a question.  My doctor told me that my BG levels are withing
normal levels until I have an intake of sugars (e.g. at a meal), then it
temporarily jumps into the diabetic range, and eventually falls back to
within normal.  He called this being "glucose intolerant."

The question is: Is this any different than what I first described?  Is
"glucose intolerant" a legitimate category?  He told me that it means I’ll
almost certainly develop into full diabetes, and it’s just a matter of how
long I can delay this through diet and exercise.  This also makes sense to
me, as much as the above does.

My take on this is that the net result is that I have to modify my diet and
begin an exercise program of some kind, so either way I wind up doing the
same thing.  The only difference is when I start on meds.  OTOH, I’m new to
this, so what the hell do I know?  :-)

Any views on this will be greatly appreciated.  Please post instead of
e-mailing, because I think this might be a valuable discussion for others
who are just beginning like I am.

Thanx,
Alf


Alf the Poet <a…@epix.net>
http://www.epix.net/~alf/

PGP key fingerprint: 65 28 FE C8 67 B0 4E 9E 2B 7B 80 20 E5 AD CE AB

posted by admin in Uncategorized and have Comments (3)






3 Responses to “Glucose Intolerant vs. Diabetic”

  1. admin says:

    In article <409atq$f78_…@cpbgppp6.epix.net>, a…@epix.net says…

    >I have received a lot of e-mail from folks telling me that there’s no such
    >thing as being a "borderline diabetic," or having "diabetic
    >tendencies," that, in the words of one of my correspondents, it’s like
    >being "a little pregnant."  The reasons given for this make sense to me,
    >but I have a question.  My doctor told me that my BG levels are withing
    >normal levels until I have an intake of sugars (e.g. at a meal), then it
    >temporarily jumps into the diabetic range, and eventually falls back to
    >within normal.  He called this being "glucose intolerant."

    At the risk of offending some of my bretheren, all of the cut off points
    distinguishing between normal glucose levels and elevated levels under
    different circumstances (fasting, x hours post y grams glucose challenge)
    are somewhat arbitrary.  The normal range is usually set at something
    like 2 standard deviations around the mean.  I don’t know what critera
    were used to set the diabetes cut off level, but there are several
    standard sets of diagnostic levels and they all vary somewhat.

    >The question is: Is this any different than what I first described?  Is
    >"glucose intolerant" a legitimate category?  He told me that it means I’ll
    >almost certainly develop into full diabetes, and it’s just a matter of how
    >long I can delay this through diet and exercise.  This also makes sense to
    >me, as much as the above does.

    The official name for values above normal, but
    below the cutoff for frank diabetes is Impaired Glucose Tolerance.
    Informally, the condition is called borderline diabetes, diabetic
    tendencies, glucose intolerance and stuff like that.  What treatment
    if any, is appropriate given the finding of impaired glucose tolerance
    is a clinical decision based on a mulitude of factors.  There is a
    continuum from someone who is barely above the high end of normal who
    may just slightly out of range, to someone just below the "official"
    cut off point for a diagnosis of diabetes.

    There are two opposing tendencies.  One is to minimize the trauma of
    the diagnosis and say, "It’s just boderline diabetes".  The other is
    to try to encourage serious diet/weight/life style change by saying,
    "You have diabetes, it just isn’t full blown yet."  They are both true
    statements.  (I am tempted to make some comments about Aristotle’s Law
    of the Excluded Middle, but after Occam’s Razor, I have second thoughts.)

    >My take on this is that the net result is that I have to modify my diet and
    >begin an exercise program of some kind, so either way I wind up doing the
    >same thing.  The only difference is when I start on meds.  OTOH, I’m new to
    >this, so what the hell do I know?  :-)

    I think you have a good understanding of what’s going on.


    Charles Coughran (ccough…@ucsd.edu )

  2. admin says:

    In article <409atq$f78_…@cpbgppp6.epix.net>, a…@epix.net says…

    - Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -

    >I have received a lot of e-mail from folks telling me that there’s no
    such
    >thing as being a "borderline diabetic," or having "diabetic
    >tendencies," that, in the words of one of my correspondents, it’s like
    >being "a little pregnant."  The reasons given for this make sense to me,
    >but I have a question.  My doctor told me that my BG levels are withing
    >normal levels until I have an intake of sugars (e.g. at a meal), then it
    >temporarily jumps into the diabetic range, and eventually falls back to
    >within normal.  He called this being "glucose intolerant."

    >The question is: Is this any different than what I first described?  Is
    >"glucose intolerant" a legitimate category?  He told me that it means
    I’ll
    >almost certainly develop into full diabetes, and it’s just a matter of
    how
    >long I can delay this through diet and exercise.

    My understanding on glucose intolerance "borderline diabetic" is that the
    person will have normal fasting BG levels but their levels jump over the
    180 limit after meals.  The only people I’ve heard who care about the
    distinction between glucose intolerance, and NIDDM are insurance
    companies.  

    My sister was diagnosed just last week 8/4 as NIDDM, having been told for
    the last 3 years that she was borderline diabetic.  When told she would
    have trouble getting new medical insurance unless she could get the doctor
    to report it as glucose intolerance, the docter sited the fact that her
    fasting sugars were 184, and he did not do a glocose tolerance test.

    Borderline diabetic means that the BG readings are high, but not yet high
    enough to require medical intervention.  They do require monitoring,
    because that could change very quickly.  For some people this state could
    last for years.  If you wanted to extend the period for as long as
    possible, learn NOW what you can do through diet and exercise to help your
    body regain control.  

    I guess I agree with the "little bit pregnant" philosophy, a borderline
    diabetic is a NIDDM diabetic.  The only difference is the degree of
    control needed.  I have known true type II diabetics who control their
    sugars completely with diet and exercise.  Nobody tries to tell them that
    their no longer diabetic.

    Jim Bell (NIDDM 2yrs, IDDM 5yrs, never "borderline")

  3. admin says:

            I was going to various doctors, because I had peripheral
    neuropathy, but had normal readings on the fasting blood sugar test.  The
    neurologist finally had me take a postprandial blood glucose test which
    was high.  I then took a glucose tolerance test.  The chart from this test
    closely matched one in a book labelled as glucose intolerant.  By the end
    of the 6 hours, my bg levels were down to the normal range, but early in
    the test, they were over the maximum "safe" levels.
            My doctor reported it as Diabetes Mellitis and now the insurance
    company is going to pay part of the test strip cost.  I have received the
    strips, but not the bill for the difference yet.  (PruCare in Texas)

            Harold

    Harold L. Menzel  - HAROL…@AOL.COM
    Richardson, TX







Place your comment

You must be logged in to post a comment.